Honestly, the division of these two verses, in my opinion, is a perfect example of Biblical scholars knowing little to nothing about how language functions holistically, particularly at the level of pragmatics and discourse – this is one occasion where my always seeking to give the benefit of the doubt really struggles.
I cannot tell you how many times I’ve been irritated with the explanation,
“The imperative mood is implied in verse 22.”
That’s not an explanation. That’s a cop out.