Craig Blomberg, Gender, and James 3

Craig Blomberg has written about James 3, making a strong case for the translation of ἀδέλφοι should be translated as “brothers and sisters.”

One of many highlights:

Shouldn’t we still err on the side of a conservative translation if there is any reasonable doubt that James had both genders in mind. Isn’t that part of where translations differ from commentaries because of our high view of the inspired text of Scripture itself? This may be one of the most widespread and dangerous fallacies afflicting certain wings of evangelical scholarship and the conservative church in general in the U.S. today.

I’ve been waiting for someone to say that for some time now. Be sure to go read why its a fallacy.

By the way, the Holy Spirit is neuter in Greek and feminine in Hebrew.

Talk about idenity crisis.

or maybe grammatical gender is different than natural gender…

8 thoughts on “Craig Blomberg, Gender, and James 3

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  1. Pingback: Better Bibles Blog
    1. No, it’s based on understanding how languages work. Allow me to quote from Don Fairbairn, Professor of Historical Theology at Gordon-Conwell Seminary’s Charlotte campus: “Another concept that needs explanation is gender. This maybe a surprising concept to English speakers, because in English,there is no such thing as purely grammatical gender. If a word refers to a man, a boy, or (in some cases) a male animal, it is considered masculine, and the pronoun “he” refers to it. If it refers to a woman, a girl, or (again, only in some cases) a female animal, it is considered feminine, and the pronoun ‘she’ refers to it. In most other cases, the object or idea is considered neuter,and the pronoun ‘it’ refers to it. (There are a few exceptions, such as referring to the Christian Church or to a ship as ‘she’.” You really shouldn’t slander people the way you did Esteban, especially when you don’t even know what you’re talking about!
      rather than “it.”) In most other languages, grammatical gender
      is different from and often unrelated to actual maleness or femaleness.
      Some languages (like French) have no grammatically
      neuter words—all are masculine or feminine. Most European
      languages have words of all three genders, but in all except English,
      a word can be grammatically masculine or feminine even
      if it obviously refers to a thing, rather than to a male or female.
      For example, in Greek and Latin, the words for the abstract virtues
      (wisdom, goodness, justice) are all grammatically feminine
      and are thus referred to as “she” rather than “it.”

      1. I sincerely regret that Dr Blomberg has wasted some of his very valuable time by replying to my tongue-in-cheek comment, but I must say that is the single most awesome thing that has happened to me in my 16 years as an active user of the Internet. The only thing that could top this would be if the infallible Moisés Silva deigned to comment on my blog one of these days!

        Be that as it may, the real tragedy is that such a comment could not readily be recognized as facetious, because there are real live people out there who would sincerely say that word for word in response to this post.

  2. Its okay, Esteban, twenty years from now everyone will see more clearly that English has changed and that gender inclusive is gender accurate.

    Well, except for those people who are convinced that language change in of itself is evil and depend no Webster’s 1828 dictionary for the true meaning of all words…

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