Dealing with Voice in Greek

Is there any reason why we couldn’t treat voice as derivational rather than inflectional?

That is to say, what if we treated, ἐκλέγομαι as a separate lexeme from ἐκλέγω, then perhaps we could avoid the whole problem of how to represent a give verb which does not have an active form in the New Testament, but does in greater Greek literature.

Seriously, what do you think?

I might see about testing how profitable such an approach might be in my own lexical database.

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